#math - Sun 1 Apr 2007 between 05:23 and 07:16

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HiLanderthe derivative, for example, is a formally defined operator
so the manipulations that lead to a closed form for the fibonacci numbers, for example, require no convergence
euclideanHiLander: I see.. but what about using the Maclaurin formula a_n = d^n f(0) / dx^n * 1/n! ?
HiLander: can that be made formally?
HiLanderif the resulting function is analytic, then yes, it'll have to work. the maclaurin formula for the coefficients is basically applying the formal derivative to the series and then noting that x=0 drops every term but the constant
but, in the context of generating functions (or, as Cale prefers, generating series), whether or not the "function" exists other than at x=0 is basically never taken into account
CaleWhich is why they're better referred to as series :)
HiLanderhaha, i knew i could summon him with only a word
(granted, enumerative combinatorics isn't the area of combinatorics i study, so i may have misspoken, but i'm fairly sure i'm mostly right)
CaleYou're really doing work in a ring of formal power series, and not usually concerned with convergence in the usual sense.
There are some areas which attempt to make use of analytic convergence when it exists. I don't know much about them though.
Parma_Quendionwow, I've been spamming people with my away message overnight
actionParma_Quendion dehighlights "quen"
Parma_Quendiondehighlights "quen"
VivanHow solve the int[1/(x^2 + a)^(3/2)*dx] without a table...?
euclideanHiLander, Cale: Thanks for your help. I'm glad I can make all those computations without worrying about convergence :)
evaristebut they're common thugs
FatalErrorVivan, trig substitution
futurist"a_n / 1 + a_n _< ln(1+a_n) _< a_n by looking at the lower and upper sum for log(1+a_n) = INT(from 1 to 1+a_n)(1/x)dx" i don't understand why this is true..
BoundingBoxwhat gradient should be provided in an area where there is no such?
nephlimhey folks
anyone awake?
Mulder5chances rae, life exists
nephlimif I were doing an ANOVA to test differences between two groups, would n for each group need to be the same
FatalErrorI really need to stop IRCing in my sleep
actionMulder5 cant remember his stats
Mulder5cant remember his stats
actionnephlim neither
nephlimneither
Kampennephlim n doesn't need to be the same
nephlimi don't want to change the numbers, because in this case, the males outnumber the females 2:1. but i'm not sure if the diff in n would skew the ANOVA results
thanks Kampen
Kampenskew is what you're checking for, in a sense
you're looking at variance, right?
that's what anova is
nephlimi mean.... botch, screw with
right
all the examples in my SPSS book have equal n
Kampenwhat exactly are you trying to do?
probably for simplicity
nephlimi'm doing an ANOVA to test for varaince between the sexes with the accruacy of their self diagnosis vs what i actually found in the lab
Kampentwo-way anova?
nephlimso a list of male and female patients

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